‘Twas Aeneas’ tale to Dido; and thereabout of it especially when he speaks of Priam’s slaughter.

That this violent bloody gory speech is spoken from one lover to another is easy to forget. If this bit of Aeneas were a real play, what would he be trying to accomplish with the telling of this epic tale? Is this a seduction? Is the man covered in blood with eyes like carbuncles meant to give Dido a little thrill? Or does it work the way a horror movie works – by scaring your lady love a little bit so she gets a little closer and wants to hold your hand?

I would love to see this play that Hamlet remembers. Is it just Dido and Aeneas or is there a greater frame around it?

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